Hello to all!
In a guided lecture I gave today for Dr. Vitz’s Modern Philosophy class (on Hume and Reid on freedom and determinism), there was a bit of confusion regarding how Reid’s view on “moral liberty” is different from Hume’s view, and if Reid was a real Libertarian given how he doesn’t seem to talk about a “free will” in the course of his essay on the liberty of moral agents.
While I tried to answer my fellow undergraduate’s questions, I am still left with a bit of doubt that I’ve actually answered their questions. And so I thought this might be a good topic to throw out to you guys.
Is Reid’s conception of “moral liberty” really that much different from Hume’s F/D view? And, more importantly, is Reid a real Libertarian? I mean, it doesn’t look like he’s tying “free will” into this at all. He still puts our actions as effects that have causes associated with them, with us being the cause for our actions. But does that automatically imply “free will”?
What do you guys think?
George (“The Meager Weakling”)